A 68-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to rapidly progressive weakness in his legs over the past 24 hours. He is now unable to walk unassisted. He also reports lower abdominal discomfort and an inability to urinate since yesterday evening. For the last 3 months, he has had a constant, aching mid-back pain that frequently wakes him from sleep and is unrelieved by over-the-counter analgesics. His medical history includes hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a 50-pack-year smoking history. His temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 158/92 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 16/min. He is awake and fully oriented with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15. Neurologic examination shows 2/5 strength in the bilateral lower extremities with flaccid muscle tone. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ at the patellae and absent at the Achilles tendons bilaterally. Plantar responses are absent. There is a distinct loss of pinprick and temperature sensation below the level of the umbilicus. A urethral catheter is placed, draining 750 mL of clear urine. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- Administration of intravenous dexamethasoneAnswer
- BMagnetic resonance imaging of the thoracic spine
- CEmergency decompressive laminectomy
- DAdministration of intravenous ceftriaxone and vancomycin
- EElectromyography and nerve conduction studies