Following a one-week vacation in a tropical resort, a 32-year-old female presents to the outpatient clinic reporting 48 hours of frequent, watery bowel movements. She describes having three to four loose stools per day accompanied by mild abdominal cramping. She denies seeing blood or mucus in the stool and has not experienced fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no daily medications. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg, and heart rate of 78/min. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft and non-tender with active bowel sounds. The patient requests an antibiotic prescription to ensure she can return to work tomorrow. Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
- Symptomatic management with fluid replacementAnswer
- BEmpiric therapy with oral ciprofloxacin
- CEmpiric therapy with oral azithromycin
- DEmpiric therapy with oral metronidazole
- EEmpiric therapy with oral vancomycin