A 72-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 2 following a partial colectomy for recurrent diverticulitis. His postoperative course was complicated by surgical site oozing, resulting in a hemoglobin drop to 6.8 g/dL. His past medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. He is currently receiving his second unit of packed red blood cells when he develops sudden-onset severe dyspnea and a dry cough. Temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), blood pressure is 175/95 mm Hg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 26/min. Pulse oximetry shows 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals an elevated jugular venous pressure of 12 cm H2O. Lung auscultation demonstrates bilateral basilar crackles with scattered expiratory wheezing. Cardiac auscultation reveals a regular tachycardia with a prominent S3 gallop. The transfusion is immediately stopped. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdminister inhaled albuterol and systemic corticosteroids
- BInitiate intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics
- CFile an incident report regarding the transfusion rate
- Administer intravenous furosemideAnswer
- EObtain a urinalysis and urine culture