During morning rounds, the internal medicine team evaluates a 58-year-old man who was admitted three days ago for management of tense ascites. He has a known history of alcohol-associated cirrhosis. On admission, he underwent a 7-liter therapeutic paracentesis.
Current vital signs include a blood pressure of 96/60 mm Hg, heart rate of 92/min, and temperature of 36.9°C (98.4°F).
Over the past 24 hours, his urine output has decreased to 320 mL. Laboratory studies show a progressive rise in serum creatinine from 1.1 mg/dL on admission to 2.8 mg/dL today. Blood urea nitrogen is 48 mg/dL. Urinalysis reveals no red blood cells, white blood cells, or cellular casts. The spot urinary sodium concentration is mEq/L.
Following these results, diuretic therapy was discontinued, and the patient received a 48-hour volume expansion challenge with intravenous albumin. However, a repeat serum creatinine this morning remains elevated at 2.9 mg/dL. A renal ultrasound demonstrates normal kidney size with no evidence of hydronephrosis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient's acute kidney injury?
- AAdministration of intravenous furosemide
- BInitiation of empiric piperacillin-tazobactam
- CPlacement of bilateral percutaneous nephrostomy tubes
- Initiation of midodrine and octreotide therapyAnswer
- EReferral for transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt creation