An inpatient ward physician is paged regarding a -year-old individual with a history of alcohol-related cirrhosis who has developed a new-onset fever. The patient was admitted the previous day for therapeutic drainage of large-volume ascites. Assessment reveals a temperature of (). The abdomen is visibly distended, demonstrating shifting dullness and diffuse tenderness upon palpation, though no rebound guarding is present. A timely diagnostic paracentesis yields ascitic fluid with an absolute neutrophil count of . Ascitic fluid and blood cultures are pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Commence intravenous cefotaximeAnswer
- BCommence intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CCommence intravenous vancomycin
- DCommence intravenous metronidazole
- EWithhold antimicrobials pending culture results
Answer
The correct answer is to commence intravenous cefotaxime.
The correct answer is to commence intravenous cefotaxime. This patient's presentation of fever, abdominal tenderness, and an ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count (ANC) greater than is diagnostic for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP). Immediate empiric antibiotic therapy is critical, as delaying treatment significantly increases mortality. The organisms most commonly responsible for SBP are enteric Gram-negative rods, primarily *Escherichia coli* and *Klebsiella pneumoniae*. A third-generation cephalosporin, such as intravenous cefotaxime or ceftriaxone, is the standard of care because it provides excellent, targeted coverage against these typical pathogens while penetrating effectively into the ascitic fluid.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is diagnosed by an ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count and requires immediate empiric treatment with an intravenous third-generation cephalosporin.
Estimated Time:1m 0s