Emergency medical services bring a -year-old male to the trauma bay due to the abrupt onset of occipital head pain and intractable vomiting. The patient's wife notes he was previously healthy except for a long-standing history of medication nonadherence for hypertension. In the triage area, his blood pressure is mm Hg with a heart rate of /min. While being evaluated, his level of consciousness rapidly declines; he only opens his eyes to painful stimuli and mumbles incomprehensibly. Neurological assessment demonstrates pronounced left dysmetria and gaze-evoked nystagmus. A stat noncontrast head CT demonstrates a -cm hyperdense collection in the left cerebellar hemisphere, accompanied by compression of the fourth ventricle and dilatation of the supratentorial ventricular system. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIntravenous labetalol infusion and clinical observation
- BPlacement of an external ventricular drain alone
- CLumbar puncture with controlled cerebrospinal fluid release
- Emergent suboccipital craniectomyAnswer
- EIntravenous administration of hypertonic saline as definitive management