A 54-year-old man is evaluated during morning rounds on his fourth day of hospitalization for acute pancreatitis. The patient originally presented with severe, radiating epigastric pain and a serum lipase level of . His medical history is significant for alcohol use disorder and hypertension. Currently, he reports ongoing abdominal discomfort but feels slightly better than on admission. He has been receiving aggressive intravenous hydration and pain control. Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , heart rate , and respiratory rate . Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with hypoactive bowel sounds and diffuse tenderness to palpation, most pronounced in the epigastrium. There is no rebound tenderness or guarding. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of with neutrophils. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is performed, demonstrating edematous enlargement of the pancreas with non-enhancement of approximately of the glandular parenchyma. Moderate peripancreatic fluid collections are present, but there is no evidence of gas within the tissue. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- ABegin intravenous imipenem-cilastatin therapy
- BPerform CT-guided fine-needle aspiration of the pancreas
- CConsult general surgery for open necrosectomy
- Maintain supportive care and continue enteral feedingAnswer
- EInitiate total parenteral nutrition to provide bowel rest