A -year-old boy is brought to the pediatric clinic by his mother due to a -week history of a right-sided limp and intermittent dull pain in his right anterior thigh and knee. He denies any recent trauma, fever, or prior episodes of similar pain. His medical history is unremarkable. His height is at the percentile and weight is at the percentile for his age. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a waddling, antalgic gait. The right knee examination shows no effusions, joint line tenderness, or ligamentous laxity. On examination of the right hip, internal rotation is significantly restricted compared to the left. When the clinician passively flexes the right hip to , the right thigh obligatorily rotates externally. Radiographs of the pelvis demonstrate posterior and inferior displacement of the right proximal femoral epiphysis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Strict non-weight-bearing and prompt percutaneous in situ screw fixationAnswer
- BClosed reduction followed by application of a hip spica cast
- CPrescription of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and physical therapy
- DUltrasound-guided aspiration of the right hip joint
- EMagnetic resonance imaging of the right knee and lumbar spine