An 8-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents due to a 1-month history of right knee pain and a worsening right-sided limp. He has no history of trauma, fever, or recent illnesses. His parents note that he has been growing at a slower rate than his peers, falling from the 50th percentile to the 5th percentile for height over the past two years. His current weight is at the 30th percentile. The parents also report that he has been more fatigued lately and has developed constipation. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the right knee has no effusion, erythema, or tenderness; range of motion is full and painless. Evaluation of the right hip reveals limited internal rotation. When the right hip is passively flexed, the thigh obligatorily rotates externally. Radiographs of the right hip show widening of the proximal femoral physis and posterior displacement of the femoral head relative to the femoral neck. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Referral for percutaneous in situ pinning and measurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormoneAnswer
- BReassurance, physical therapy, and routine follow-up for a benign growth variant
- CImmediate closed reduction of the femoral head and application of a spica cast
- DAdmission for urgent hip arthrocentesis and administration of empiric intravenous antibiotics
- EMagnetic resonance imaging of the right knee to evaluate for internal derangement