A -year-old man is transported to the resuscitation bay after collapsing at his home. His daughter, who witnessed the event, reports that he suddenly complained of an agonizing, tearing pain in the center of his chest that radiated to his upper back right before losing consciousness. His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and a prior exploratory laparotomy for a small bowel obstruction.
On physical examination, the patient is lethargic, diaphoretic, and pale. Vital signs are:
Temperature: ()
Heart rate:
Blood pressure:
Respiratory rate:
Oxygen saturation: on room air.
Cardiovascular examination reveals distended neck veins, faint heart sounds, and a newly appreciated high-pitched, blowing early diastolic murmur best heard at the right upper sternal border. Lung auscultation is clear bilaterally. The abdomen is soft and non-distended.
A bedside point-of-care ultrasound demonstrates a large pericardial effusion with right ventricular diastolic collapse, as well as a visible intimal flap in the proximal ascending aorta.
Based on the clinical and sonographic findings, what is the best initial intervention for this patient?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
- BIntravenous administration of furosemide and nitroglycerin
- Immediate operative repair of the ascending aortaAnswer
- DInitiation of bowel rest and serial abdominal examinations
- EWithhold intervention until a healthcare proxy can provide formal consent