A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to a 2-day history of progressively worsening shortness of breath and coughing up blood-tinged sputum. His past medical history is significant for chronic rhinosinusitis that has been poorly responsive to multiple courses of antibiotics, and migrating joint pains for the past 6 months. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals a mild collapse of the nasal bridge. Lung auscultation reveals diffuse bilateral crackles. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs, gallops, or jugular venous distention. There is trace bilateral lower extremity edema. Laboratory results show:
Hemoglobin:
Leukocyte count:
Platelet count:
Blood urea nitrogen:
Serum creatinine: (baseline 6 months ago)
Urinalysis: 2+ protein, large blood, 20-30 red blood cells/hpf, presence of red blood cell casts.
A portable chest radiograph shows bilateral, patchy, diffuse alveolar infiltrates. An electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient's acute condition?
- AIntravenous furosemide
- BComputed tomography angiography of the chest
- High-dose intravenous methylprednisoloneAnswer
- DIntravenous cyclophosphamide
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin