A 13-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to severe right-sided leg pain. For the past month, he has complained of a dull, intermittent ache in his right anterior thigh and knee, which he attributed to playing basketball. This morning, while walking down the stairs, he felt a sudden "pop" and experienced exquisite pain. He is now completely unable to bear weight on the right leg. His body mass index is . Vital signs are within normal limits, and he is afebrile. Physical examination reveals a well-appearing boy in moderate discomfort. Inspection of the right knee shows no swelling, erythema, or localized tenderness. When the examiner attempts to passively flex the right hip to , the thigh obligately rotates externally. There is significantly limited internal rotation of the right hip compared to the left. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AObtain magnetic resonance imaging of the right knee
- BAdmit the patient for strict bed rest and administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- Obtain anteroposterior and cross-table lateral radiographs of the bilateral hipsAnswer
- DPerform an ultrasound of the right hip and initiate empiric intravenous antibiotics
- EObtain anteroposterior and frog-leg lateral radiographs of the bilateral hips