A -year-old man who resides in a skilled nursing facility is evaluated for acute-onset severe pain and swelling in his right knee that began hours ago. He has a history of hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and advanced chronic kidney disease with a baseline serum creatinine of . Vital signs are within normal limits except for a temperature of (). Physical examination reveals a warm, erythematous, and swollen right knee with a moderate effusion. Range of motion is severely limited by pain. Arthrocentesis yields of cloudy, yellow synovial fluid. Analysis shows a leukocyte count of with neutrophils. Polarized light microscopy demonstrates rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence. Gram stain reveals no organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intra-articular triamcinolone injectionAnswer
- BEmpiric intravenous vancomycin
- COral naproxen
- DOral allopurinol
- EIntravenous furosemide