A 35-year-old man is evaluated in the clinic for right upper quadrant abdominal pain and subjective fevers over the past two weeks. He immigrated to the United States from Central America two months ago. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Physical examination reveals an enlarged liver with marked tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase. An abdominal ultrasound demonstrates a single hypoechoic, fluid-filled lesion in the right lobe of the liver. *Entamoeba histolytica* serology is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AUltrasound-guided percutaneous aspiration
- BIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- Oral metronidazole and paromomycinAnswer
- DIntravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole
- EOral albendazole
Answer
Oral metronidazole and paromomycin
The patient has an amebic liver abscess, caused by *Entamoeba histolytica*, indicated by his recent travel history, right upper quadrant pain, fever, a solitary right-lobe cystic lesion on ultrasound, and positive serology. The cornerstone of therapy for an uncomplicated amebic liver abscess is medical management with a tissue amebicide, such as metronidazole or tinidazole. This must be followed by a luminal amebicide, such as paromomycin or iodoquinol, to eradicate intestinal colonization and prevent relapse.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
The primary treatment for an uncomplicated amebic liver abscess is medical management with a tissue amebicide (e.g., metronidazole) and a luminal agent (e.g., paromomycin), without the need for routine percutaneous drainage.