An elderly man is evaluated on the surgical ward on postoperative day 3 following an elective sigmoid resection for diverticular disease. His medical history is significant for ischemic cardiomyopathy and stage 3a chronic kidney disease. Overnight, he developed acute, intense pain and marked swelling in his right knee. His temperature is 38.3°C (101.0°F), blood pressure is 132/82 mmHg, and pulse is 98/min. Physical examination of the right knee reveals significant erythema, warmth, and a large effusion. Passive range of motion is severely restricted by pain. Mild bilateral pitting edema is present at the ankles, which the patient states is his baseline. Arthrocentesis is performed, yielding synovial fluid with a leukocyte count of 35,000/μL (85% neutrophils). Microscopic analysis under polarized light reveals rhomboid-shaped crystals exhibiting weak positive birefringence. Gram stain of the fluid shows no organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administration of an intra-articular glucocorticoidAnswer
- BInitiation of intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- CInitiation of oral allopurinol
- DInitiation of intravenous furosemide
- EComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis