A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to a severe right-sided headache, jaw pain when chewing food, and generalized aching in her shoulders and hips that has progressively worsened over the past 2 weeks. This morning, she experienced a 10-minute episode of painless, transient vision loss in her right eye that has since resolved. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), blood pressure is 138/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Physical examination reveals a tender, thickened, and non-pulsatile right temporal artery. She has limited active range of motion of her shoulders due to pain, but her muscle strength is normal. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 98 mm/hr. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administration of high-dose intravenous methylprednisoloneAnswer
- BAdministration of high-dose oral prednisone
- CPerformance of a temporal artery biopsy
- DCarotid duplex ultrasonography
- EInitiation of intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone