Question

A $24$-year-old male presents to the clinic with a $3$-day history of severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. He reports that the diarrhea was initially watery but has become frankly bloody over the past $24$ hours. He has not traveled recently but frequently eats at a local food truck that serves hamburgers. His temperature is $37.1^\circ\text{C}$ ($98.8^\circ\text{F}$), blood pressure is $112/74\text{ mm Hg}$, and pulse is $92\text{/min}$. Physical examination reveals a non-distended abdomen with moderate, diffuse tenderness to palpation, but no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of $9,500/\text{mm}^3$, hemoglobin of $13.8\text{ g/dL}$, and a platelet count of $185,000/\text{mm}^3$. Renal function panel is currently within normal limits. Stool testing for ova and parasites is negative, and stool culture is pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?