A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to sudden-onset, severe right leg pain that began 2 hours ago. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation. He is prescribed apixaban but admits to missing several doses over the past week. On physical examination, the right lower extremity is pale and cool to the touch from the mid-thigh down. Femoral, popliteal, and pedal pulses are nonpalpable on the right, while they are 2+ on the left. The patient has decreased sensation over the dorsum of his right foot and exhibits mild weakness when asked to dorsiflex his toes. Arrange the following steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for the evaluation and management of this patient.
- 1Evaluate distal perfusion using a handheld continuous-wave Doppler ultrasound
- 2Administer an intravenous bolus of unfractionated heparin
- 3Obtain an angiographic study to define the level and extent of the occlusion
- 4Perform an emergent surgical arterial embolectomy or revascularization