A 32-year-old man is evaluated by the surgical team for severe right lower extremity pain. Twelve hours ago, he underwent an uncomplicated open reduction and internal fixation of a comminuted right tibial shaft fracture sustained in a mountain biking accident. The patient reports that over the past two hours, the pain has become agonizing and is no longer relieved by his scheduled doses of intravenous morphine. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . On physical examination, the right anterolateral leg appears tense and significantly swollen compared to the contralateral limb. The overlying skin is shiny. Passive plantar flexion of the right ankle and toes elicits a dramatic increase in pain. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds, and the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are palpable bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Preparation for immediate fasciotomyAnswer
- BObservation and escalation of intravenous opioid analgesics
- CCT angiography of the right lower extremity
- DElevation of the right leg above the level of the heart
- EInitiation of intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics