A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of abdominal cramping and diarrhea that began 4 days ago. He reports that the diarrhea was initially watery but has become frankly bloody over the past 24 hours. He does not recall having a fever. Five days prior to symptom onset, he attended a neighborhood barbecue where he consumed hamburgers. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Abdominal examination reveals hyperactive bowel sounds and diffuse, mild tenderness without guarding or rebound. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of , hemoglobin of , platelet count of , and serum creatinine of . Rapid stool enzyme immunoassay is positive for Shiga toxin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Provide supportive care with oral rehydration therapyAnswer
- BInitiate therapy with oral ciprofloxacin
- CAdminister intravenous ceftriaxone
- DPrescribe oral azithromycin
- ECommence therapy with oral vancomycin