An emergency medical services team brings a -year-old male to the trauma bay following an episode of syncope at home. His wife reports that he complained of sudden, excruciating pain in his left flank and lower abdomen just before collapsing. His past medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, and a -pack-year smoking habit. On arrival, he is lethargic, pale, and diaphoretic. Vital signs include a temperature of (), blood pressure of , heart rate of , and respiratory rate of . Palpation of the abdomen reveals significant distention and a tender, pulsatile mass just above the umbilicus. A point-of-care ultrasound performed immediately demonstrates a infrarenal aortic dilation with surrounding retroperitoneal free fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Emergent transfer to the operating room for vascular repairAnswer
- BComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CInsertion of a nasogastric tube and implementation of bowel rest
- DAdministration of intravenous furosemide and noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
- EAdministration of continuous nebulized albuterol and intravenous corticosteroids