An -year-old woman is brought to the emergency department from a skilled nursing facility due to the sudden onset of severe, unrelenting abdominal pain that began hours ago. The facility staff reports that she has become progressively lethargic and confused over the past hour. Her past medical history is significant for heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, hypertension, and paroxysmal non-valvular atrial fibrillation. She has not taken her prescribed apixaban for the last three weeks due to an insurance coverage issue.
Her temperature is (), pulse is and irregularly irregular, blood pressure is , and respirations are . Pulse oximetry shows on ambient air. She is diaphoretic and writhing in bed. Cardiopulmonary examination reveals an irregular heartbeat with no murmurs, and the lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is rigid and distended. There is diffuse, severe tenderness to palpation with marked involuntary guarding and rebound tenderness in all four quadrants. Bowel sounds are absent. Digital rectal examination yields grossly normal-appearing stool that is positive for occult blood.
Laboratory studies are as follows:
| Parameter | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | ||
| Hemoglobin | ||
| Platelet count | ||
| Serum sodium | ||
| Serum potassium | ||
| Serum chloride | ||
| Serum bicarbonate | ||
| Blood urea nitrogen | ||
| Serum creatinine | ||
| Serum lactate |
Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows a pH of and a of .
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- CIntravenous unfractionated heparin infusion and intensive care observation
- DMesenteric digital subtraction angiography with catheter-directed thrombolysis
- EIntravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and placement of a nasogastric tube