Question

A 42-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 24-hour history of severe, unrelenting epigastric pain that radiates directly to his mid-back. The pain is accompanied by continuous nausea and several episodes of nonbilious emesis. He admits to consuming a large amount of alcohol over the past weekend. His temperature is $37.6^\circ\text{C}$ ($99.7^\circ\text{F}$), blood pressure is $112/68\text{ mmHg}$, and pulse is $110/\text{min}$. Physical examination reveals marked tenderness to deep palpation in the epigastric region, with decreased bowel sounds but no rigidity or rebound tenderness. Laboratory evaluation shows a leukocyte count of $14,500/\text{mm}^3$, aspartate aminotransferase of $45\text{ U/L}$, alanine aminotransferase of $38\text{ U/L}$, alkaline phosphatase of $90\text{ U/L}$, total bilirubin of $1.0\text{ mg/dL}$, and serum lipase of $2,800\text{ U/L}$ (normal: $10-140\text{ U/L}$). An ultrasound of the right upper quadrant demonstrates an enlarged, hypoechoic pancreas but no evidence of gallstones, sludge, or biliary ductal dilation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?