A 62-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for progressive dyspnea, a dry cough, and profound fatigue over the past months, which have acutely worsened over the last week. She also reports significant morning stiffness in her hands and wrists lasting up to hours, along with intermittent joint swelling for the past months. Her temperature is C ( F), blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min, respiratory rate is /min, and oxygen saturation is on room air. Examination shows bilateral boggy swelling and tenderness of the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. Lung auscultation reveals fine crackles at both lung bases. There is no jugular venous distention, gallop, or peripheral edema.
Laboratory studies show:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): U/mL (Normal: U/mL)
Free thyroxine (T4): ng/dL (Normal: ng/dL)
An arterial blood gas on room air shows , mmHg, mmHg, and mEq/L.
Chest radiograph shows diffuse, fine reticular opacities predominantly in the lower lung zones without cardiomegaly or pleural effusions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AAdministration of intravenous furosemide
- BEmpiric administration of intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CInitiation of levothyroxine replacement therapy
- Measurement of serum anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodiesAnswer
- ECalculation of expected respiratory compensation using Winter's formula