A 58-year-old man is hospitalized for acute ascending cholangitis. On admission, he presented with fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain. He was started on empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam, and an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) was performed, successfully removing a common bile duct stone and establishing biliary drainage. Forty-eight hours later, the patient is afebrile, his vital signs are stable, and his abdominal pain has significantly improved. Both blood and bile cultures grow Escherichia coli. Susceptibility testing indicates the organism is susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antibiotic management?
- Switch to intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CSwitch to intravenous meropenem
- DSwitch to intravenous cefepime and metronidazole
- EAdd intravenous vancomycin