A 32-year-old male is evaluated at the behavioral health center for profound distress. Five months prior, he witnessed a catastrophic scaffolding collapse at his construction site. Since the incident, he suffers from severe hyperarousal, nightly harrowing dreams about the collapse, and active avoidance of any construction zones. He feels emotionally estranged from his spouse. Over the previous six weeks, he has also manifested a severely depressed affect, extreme fatigue, and complete loss of interest in his usual recreational activities.
Review of his psychiatric history reveals an involuntary psychiatric admission at age 23. During that 18-day admission, he exhibited expansive mood, pressured speech, a perceived lack of need for sleep, and auditory hallucinations of a voice declaring him 'the chosen architect.' These hallucinations ceased entirely within days of mood stabilization.
Five days ago, the patient abruptly stopped taking phenelzine—prescribed by a different provider for his low mood—due to his inability to maintain the required dietary restrictions. He is currently taking no medications.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate next step in management?
- ADelay pharmacotherapy for 9 days, followed by the introduction of paroxetine alone
- BNotify his construction manager to mandate a transfer to administrative duties
- Begin lithium and arrange for trauma-focused psychotherapyAnswer
- DClassify his previous presentation as schizophreniform disorder and begin risperidone
- EPrescribe immediate citalopram to address both his trauma-related and depressive symptoms