A 32-year-old woman comes to the outpatient clinic 4 months postpartum for a follow-up evaluation of depressive symptoms. Two weeks ago, she presented with a 4-week history of profound despondency, early morning awakenings, anorexia with a 3-kg (6.6-lb) weight loss, and feeling worse in the morning. She reported that these symptoms made it exceedingly difficult to get out of bed and properly care for her infant. At that time, she was diagnosed with major depressive disorder and started on escitalopram 10 mg daily. Today, she states, "The medication isn't working. I still feel incredibly depressed, but now I also feel extremely restless, jittery, and my thoughts are racing." Vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the patient appears visibly agitated, is pacing the room, and exhibits rapid speech. Upon detailed psychiatric review, she mentions that during her second year of college, she experienced a spontaneous 6-day period where she felt "incredibly energized," slept only 3 hours per night without fatigue, and impulsively maxed out two credit cards on unnecessary clothing. That episode resolved without medical intervention. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- AContinue escitalopram and schedule a follow-up in 4 weeks
- BIncrease the dosage of escitalopram to 20 mg daily
- Discontinue escitalopram and initiate quetiapineAnswer
- DDiscontinue escitalopram and initiate venlafaxine
- EContinue escitalopram and add bupropion