A 28-year-old woman presents to the psychiatry clinic with a 4-month history of recurrent, unexpected episodes of intense fear. These episodes are accompanied by palpitations, sweating, shortness of breath, and a feeling of impending doom. She constantly worries about having another episode and has started avoiding public transportation as a result. Her past medical history is significant for bipolar I disorder, but she discontinued all her psychiatric medications 2 years ago against medical advice and currently takes no medications. The physician and patient are discussing treatment options for her current symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapyAnswer
- BInitiate paroxetine monotherapy
- CInitiate phenelzine and fluoxetine concurrently
- DReassure the patient that her symptoms are a normal physiological response to stress
- EDiagnose schizophreniform disorder and initiate risperidone
Answer
Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy
The correct answer identifies that cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a first-line treatment for panic disorder. In a patient with unmedicated bipolar I disorder, CBT is particularly appropriate because it avoids the pharmacological risks associated with antidepressants, specifically the risk of triggering a manic episode.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
First-line management of panic disorder in a patient with unmedicated bipolar disorder is psychotherapy (CBT) to avoid the risk of antidepressant-induced mania.
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