A medical team is rounding on a -year-old man admitted days ago with fever, abdominal pain, and confusion. He has a known history of decompensated cirrhosis due to chronic hepatitis C. At the time of admission, an emergency diagnostic paracentesis yielded cloudy fluid with an absolute neutrophil count of , confirming spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Because he had been hospitalized weeks prior for a variceal bleed, the inpatient team initiated empiric therapy with intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam to cover potential healthcare-associated pathogens.
Currently, the patient is clinically stable. His confusion has cleared, and he reports no abdominal pain. Vital signs today show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , and a heart rate of . The microbiology laboratory reports that the admission ascitic fluid culture is positive for *Escherichia coli*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing demonstrates that the isolate is sensitive to ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, and ciprofloxacin, but resistant to ampicillin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- Change to intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CChange to intravenous meropenem
- DChange to intravenous cefepime
- EAdd intravenous vancomycin