A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his husband due to a 2-day history of progressive confusion, fatigue, and fever. The patient had a mild upper respiratory tract infection one week ago but otherwise has no significant past medical history. He takes no medications.
Vital signs are:
Temperature: 38.6°C (101.5°F)
Blood pressure: 142/88 mm Hg
Heart rate: 110/min
Respiratory rate: 18/min
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
Physical examination reveals a lethargic man who is oriented to person only. Scleral icterus is present. The skin examination shows widespread pinpoint, non-blanching red macules over the lower extremities and abdomen. There is no nuchal rigidity, and the remainder of the neurologic examination is nonfocal.
Laboratory studies reveal:
Hemoglobin: 7.6 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 88 fL
Platelets: 18,000/mm³
Leukocytes: 9,200/mm³
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 42 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.3 mg/dL
Total bilirubin: 4.8 mg/dL
Indirect bilirubin: 3.9 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): 1,450 U/L
Haptoglobin: 8 mg/dL (Normal: 50–200 mg/dL)
Prothrombin time (PT): 12 seconds
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): 28 seconds
Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test: Negative
Peripheral blood smear reveals numerous fragmented red blood cells.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- ATransport the patient to radiology for a non-contrast computed tomography scan of the head
- BTransfuse one unit of apheresis platelets and closely monitor neurologic status
- Initiate plasma exchange therapyAnswer
- DAdminister high-dose intravenous corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulin
- EObtain blood cultures and initiate empiric vancomycin and cefepime