A 52-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain. The pain is constant and described as a dull ache. She reports mild nausea but no vomiting, diarrhea, or hematochezia. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no daily medications. Temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 14/min. Abdominal examination reveals focal tenderness in the left lower quadrant without guarding, rigidity, or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are normal. Laboratory testing shows a leukocyte count of 9,500/mm³ with a normal differential. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast demonstrates wall thickening and peri-colic fat stranding in the sigmoid colon. There is no evidence of an abscess, stricture, fistula, or free intraperitoneal air. The patient is able to tolerate oral fluids without difficulty. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discharge home with a clear liquid diet and supportive careAnswer
- BDischarge home with a prescription for oral ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
- CAdmit to the hospital for intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DConsult general surgery for an urgent sigmoid colectomy
- EAdmit for bowel preparation and urgent colonoscopy