A -year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit due to rapidly worsening abdominal distension and hemodynamic instability. He was admitted days ago for severe community-acquired pneumonia, which was treated with a -day course of intravenous levofloxacin. On hospital day , he developed frequent, foul-smelling, watery stools. Today, the nursing staff notes that his diarrhea abruptly ceased over the last hours, but he has become progressively lethargic. His temperature is (), pulse is , blood pressure is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals a markedly distended abdomen that is tympanitic to percussion and diffusely tender with guarding. Bowel sounds are absent. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate of . Plain abdominal radiography demonstrates colonic dilation with a transverse colon diameter of , loss of haustral markings, and no evidence of pneumoperitoneum. In addition to aggressive fluid resuscitation and urgent surgical consultation, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
- AIntravenous vancomycin and enteral metronidazole
- BEnteral fidaxomicin monotherapy
- CIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- Enteral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazoleAnswer
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone and intravenous metronidazole