Question

Difficulty: HardCardiothoracic and Vascular Surgery

Match each clinical presentation to its most likely underlying pathophysiological mechanism or diagnosis.

  • A 54-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with vertigo, diplopia, and left arm claudication during upper extremity exertion. Physical exam reveals a 35 mm Hg systolic blood pressure differential between her arms.Retrograde blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery due to proximal subclavian stenosis
  • A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presents with acute, severe abdominal pain. Examination shows a soft, non-tender abdomen with absent bowel sounds. Laboratory studies reveal a significant lactic acidosis.Acute embolic occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery causing bowel infarction
  • A 35-year-old man with a 20-pack-year smoking history presents with severe resting pain and ulcerations on his fingertips and toes. Radial and pedal pulses are diminished, but brachial and popliteal pulses are normal.Segmental, nonatherosclerotic, inflammatory vaso-occlusive disease of small to medium vessels
  • A 62-year-old man with Marfan syndrome presents with sudden, tearing anterior chest pain. Examination reveals a new early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the right upper sternal border.Intimal tear in the ascending aorta leading to the creation of a false lumen

Answer

Subclavian steal syndrome matches with retrograde vertebral artery flow; Acute mesenteric ischemia matches with SMA embolus; Thromboangiitis obliterans matches with nonatherosclerotic vaso-occlusive disease; Type A aortic dissection matches with an intimal tear in the ascending aorta.
The correct pairings accurately link classic vascular surgery patient presentations with their definitive underlying pathophysiological mechanisms, distinguishing between embolic, inflammatory, structural, and hemodynamic etiologies of ischemia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the presentation of the 54-year-old woman with exertion-induced vertigo and an upper extremity blood pressure differential.
Identify Subclavian Steal Syndrome.
Proximal subclavian artery stenosis lowers distal pressure, causing retrograde flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery to supply the arm during exercise, which steals blood from the brainstem.
2
Analyze the presentation of the 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation, pain out of proportion to exam, and lactic acidosis.
Identify Acute Mesenteric Ischemia.
Atrial fibrillation is a prime risk factor for arterial emboli. An embolus lodging in the superior mesenteric artery causes acute bowel ischemia, leading to extreme pain despite a benign initial abdominal exam, eventually resulting in necrosis and lactic acidosis.
3
Analyze the presentation of the 35-year-old man with a heavy smoking history and distal extremity ischemic ulcerations with normal proximal pulses.
Identify Thromboangiitis Obliterans (Buerger disease).
This is a distinct segmental, nonatherosclerotic inflammatory disease that specifically affects small and medium vessels. It is heavily associated with tobacco use in young patients.
4
Analyze the presentation of the 62-year-old man with Marfan syndrome, tearing chest pain, and a new diastolic murmur.
Identify Type A Aortic Dissection.
Marfan syndrome involves connective tissue weakness predisposing to cystic medial necrosis and aortic dissection (intimal tear). Involvement of the ascending aorta (Type A) can expand the aortic root and cause acute aortic regurgitation.

Key Concept

Cardiothoracic and Vascular Surgery Pathophysiology
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