Question

An $82$-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after a mechanical fall at home. She tripped over a rug and landed directly on her right side. She complains of severe right groin pain and is completely unable to bear weight. Her past medical history is significant for osteoporosis, hypertension, and mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Her current medications include amlodipine, alendronate, and an albuterol inhaler.

Vital signs are temperature $37.1^\circ\text{C}$ ($98.8^\circ\text{F}$), blood pressure $138/82\text{ mm Hg}$, pulse $88/\text{min}$, and respiratory rate $16/\text{min}$. On physical examination, her right lower extremity is visibly shortened and externally rotated. Palpation over the greater trochanter elicits significant tenderness. Distal pulses are intact, and there are no sensory deficits.

Anteroposterior radiographs of the right hip reveal a completely displaced fracture line extending transversely across the anatomical neck of the right femur, entirely proximal to the intertrochanteric line. There is no evidence of underlying osteolytic lesions.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient's injury?