A -year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day following an uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Over the past hours, he has developed a fever and severe pain in his right knee. He states the pain is so intense that he cannot bear weight or tolerate the bedsheets touching his leg. His medical history is significant for essential hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypothyroidism. Current medications include lisinopril and levothyroxine. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. His abdomen is soft and non-tender, and the surgical incisions are clean and intact. Examination of the right knee reveals marked erythema, warmth, and a large effusion. The joint is exquisitely tender to palpation and passive range of motion. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of . Arthrocentesis of the right knee yields of cloudy synovial fluid. Analysis of the fluid reveals a leukocyte count of with neutrophils. Polarized light microscopy demonstrates rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence. Gram stain of the synovial fluid reveals no organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AIntravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- BComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- Intra-articular triamcinolone injectionAnswer
- DObtain a serum uric acid level
- EIncrease the daily levothyroxine dosage