A 65-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 3 for acute-onset right knee pain and swelling. The patient underwent an uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy for acute calculous cholecystitis. His medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease. His home medications include amlodipine, insulin glargine, and atorvastatin. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 145/85 mm Hg, pulse is 95/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min.
Physical examination shows a swollen, erythematous, and exquisitely tender right knee with a large effusion. Range of motion is severely limited due to pain. The surgical incisions are clean, dry, and intact.
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | 12,500/mm³ |
| Serum creatinine | 2.6 mg/dL (baseline 2.4 mg/dL) |
Arthrocentesis of the right knee is performed. Synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 45,000/mm³ with 85% neutrophils. Polarized light microscopy reveals negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals. Gram stain of the synovial fluid shows no organisms.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIntravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- BBlood and urine cultures with chest radiography
- Intra-articular triamcinolone injectionAnswer
- DOral naproxen
- EMeasurement of serum uric acid level