A -year-old man is evaluated in the surgical intensive care unit for severe right lower extremity pain. hours ago, he underwent closed reduction and intramedullary nailing for a comminuted right tibial shaft fracture sustained in a high-speed skiing accident. He reports that the pain has progressively worsened over the last hours and is now "unbearable," describing it as a deep, burning ache. The pain is completely unresponsive to multiple doses of intravenous morphine. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . On physical examination, the right leg is tensely swollen, shiny, and exceedingly firm to palpation. Passive plantar flexion of the right ankle and toes elicits excruciating pain. Sensation to light touch is markedly decreased over the first dorsal web space of the right foot. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are palpable and symmetric to the contralateral side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate four-compartment fasciotomy of the right lower legAnswer
- BTransport to the radiology suite for computed tomography angiography of the right lower extremity
- CInitiation of a full septic workup including blood cultures and empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics
- DAdministration of intravenous furosemide and elevation of the affected extremity above heart level
- EPostponement of operative intervention until informed consent can be obtained from his next-of-kin