Question

Difficulty: MediumDepressive Disorders

Match each patient's clinical presentation with the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention.

  • A 78-year-old woman with a 6-week history of depressed mood, profound insomnia, and an unintentional 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight loss.Mirtazapine
  • A 55-year-old man with a 2-month history of anhedonia, low mood, and severe bilateral burning foot pain due to long-standing diabetes mellitus.Duloxetine
  • A 34-year-old woman with a 3-month history of depressed mood, profound fatigue, and weight gain, who explicitly requests a treatment that will not cause sexual dysfunction.Bupropion
  • A 45-year-old man with a 4-week history of severe depression, psychomotor retardation, and a fixed belief that his internal organs are rotting.Sertraline and olanzapine

Answer

The 78-year-old woman with insomnia/weight loss matches with mirtazapine. The 55-year-old man with diabetic neuropathy matches with duloxetine. The 34-year-old woman avoiding sexual dysfunction matches with bupropion. The 45-year-old man with somatic delusions matches with sertraline and olanzapine.
The correct matches align the unique pharmacologic profiles (including mechanism of action and common adverse effects) of specific medications with each patient's clinical needs. Mirtazapine provides targeted relief for insomnia and anorexia. Duloxetine addresses both mood and neuropathic pain. Bupropion avoids sexual side effects while mitigating fatigue. A combination of an antidepressant and antipsychotic is mandated for psychotic depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the 78-year-old woman's symptom cluster.
Identify prominent insomnia and weight loss in the setting of depression.
Mirtazapine is uniquely suited for this profile due to its side effects of appetite stimulation and sedation.
2
Analyze the 55-year-old man's comorbidities.
Identify concurrent major depressive disorder and painful diabetic neuropathy.
SNRIs like duloxetine offer dual efficacy, treating both the psychiatric and neurologic symptoms simultaneously.
3
Analyze the 34-year-old woman's treatment preferences and symptoms.
Identify fatigue, weight gain, and a strong desire to avoid sexual side effects.
Bupropion avoids the sexual dysfunction and weight gain typically seen with SSRIs, and provides an activating effect.
4
Analyze the 45-year-old man's clinical presentation.
Identify the presence of delusions (rotting organs), indicating major depressive disorder with psychotic features.
Antidepressant monotherapy is insufficient; standard management requires combining an antidepressant with an antipsychotic.

Key Concept

Tailoring pharmacotherapy for major depressive disorder based on patient-specific symptom clusters, medical comorbidities, and desired side-effect profiles.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
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