A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to intermittent, crampy abdominal pain and nausea for the past 24 hours. He has vomited twice and has not passed flatus since yesterday. His surgical history is significant for an open appendectomy for a perforated appendix 10 years ago.
Vital signs include a temperature of (), pulse of , respirations of , and blood pressure of . The abdomen is moderately distended and tympanitic to percussion. High-pitched, hyperactive bowel sounds are auscultated. There is mild, diffuse abdominal tenderness to deep palpation, but no guarding, rigidity, or rebound tenderness is present.
Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a normal basic metabolic panel. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast reveals dilated loops of small bowel up to in diameter, a transition point in the distal ileum, and a collapsed colon. The bowel wall enhances normally, and there is no evidence of pneumatosis intestinalis, free intraperitoneal air, or free fluid.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Placement of a nasogastric tube and intravenous fluidsAnswer
- BImmediate exploratory laparotomy
- CDiagnostic laparoscopy
- DAdministration of intravenous metoclopramide
- EInitiation of intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics