A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to a 24-hour history of severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and bilious vomiting. She has not passed flatus or stool since the pain began. Her medical history is notable for a laparoscopic appendectomy 10 years ago. She takes no daily medications. Her temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), blood pressure is 114/76 mm Hg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination reveals an asymmetrically distended abdomen. It is highly tympanitic to percussion and moderately tender diffusely, but there is no guarding or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are high-pitched and hyperactive. A plain radiograph of the abdomen demonstrates a markedly dilated, comma-shaped loop of bowel originating in the right lower quadrant and projecting toward the left upper quadrant. There is a single air-fluid level within the loop and a paucity of gas in the distal colon. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Urgent surgical explorationAnswer
- BEndoscopic decompression via flexible sigmoidoscopy
- CIntravenous administration of neostigmine
- DPlacement of a nasogastric tube and nonoperative observation
- EAdministration of a water-soluble contrast enema