Paramedics rush a 68-year-old male to the trauma bay following an episode of massive hematemesis at his residence. His wife, who arrived separately, reports to the staff that he experienced a smaller episode of bloody vomiting yesterday but refused medical evaluation at that time. The electronic health record shows a history of hypertension, tobacco use disorder, and an open surgical repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm thirty-six months ago. Currently, the patient is lethargic, diaphoretic, and extremely pale. Vital signs include a temperature of (), blood pressure of , heart rate of , and respiratory rate of . Physical examination reveals a well-healed midline abdominal scar. The abdomen is soft and non-distended without guarding or rebound tenderness. Bilateral femoral pulses are palpable but weak. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of , of , and of . Despite the rapid administration of two units of uncrossmatched O-negative packed red blood cells through two large-bore intravenous lines, his blood pressure remains critically low at . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- CAdministration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate
- DDelaying intervention to obtain informed consent from the wife
- EConservative management with nasogastric decompression