A 74-year-old man is evaluated in the outpatient clinic due to a 24-hour history of exquisite right knee pain, swelling, and difficulty bearing weight. His medical history is significant for ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%, chronic kidney disease with a baseline serum creatinine of 2.1 mg/dL, and bilateral knee osteoarthritis. Current medications include carvedilol, lisinopril, furosemide, and low-dose aspirin. Vital signs are temperature 37.5°C (99.5°F), blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 82/min, and respiratory rate 14/min. Physical examination reveals a markedly swollen, erythematous, and warm right knee with a palpable effusion. Arthrocentesis is performed, yielding turbid synovial fluid. Synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 22,000/mm³ (75% neutrophils). Gram stain of the fluid shows no organisms. Polarized light microscopy demonstrates rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intra-articular triamcinolone injectionAnswer
- BIntravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- COral indomethacin
- DOral allopurinol
- ESerum antinuclear antibody testing