A -year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for a -week history of progressively worsening right upper quadrant abdominal pain, high fevers, and a dry cough. He immigrated from a rural region of Central America years ago and returned there to visit relatives for a month, arriving back in the United States two months ago. His temperature is (), blood pressure is mm Hg, pulse is /min, and respirations are /min. Physical examination reveals scleral icterus and significant point tenderness over the right lower rib cage. Dullness to percussion is noted at the right lung base.
Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
| Parameter | Value |
|---|---|
| pH | |
| pCO | mm Hg |
| pO | mm Hg |
Additional laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | |
| Total bilirubin | mg/dL |
| Alkaline phosphatase | U/L |
| Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) | U/L |
| Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) | U/L |
An abdominal ultrasound demonstrates a solitary, -cm, hypoechoic lesion in the right hepatic lobe. To rule out a pyogenic source, an ultrasound-guided aspiration is performed, yielding a thick, odorless, dark-brown fluid. Gram stain shows abundant leukocytes but no organisms.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous metronidazole followed by oral paromomycinAnswer
- BIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and placement of a percutaneous drainage catheter
- CExploratory laparotomy and surgical unroofing of the hepatic lesion
- DAdministration of acetazolamide to correct the acid-base abnormality
- EEmergent transport for multiphasic abdominal computed tomography