During morning rounds on the inpatient hematology unit, a resident assesses a 38-year-old male who was admitted four days ago with a new diagnosis of acute promyelocytic leukemia. He was immediately started on targeted induction therapy including a vitamin A derivative. Over the last 12 hours, the patient has developed a fever, progressive shortness of breath, and a weight gain of . Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Pulse oximetry shows on ambient air. Physical examination reveals elevated jugular venous pressure and diffuse bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of , which has increased from on admission. A chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral interstitial opacities and a small right-sided pleural effusion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- APrescribe an intravenous loop diuretic
- BAdd empiric antifungal therapy
- Start therapy with high-dose corticosteroidsAnswer
- DPerform urgent therapeutic leukapheresis
- EHalt the current leukemia induction regimen