A -year-old woman is evaluated in the intensive care unit for sudden clinical deterioration. She was admitted days ago for a severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation, which was treated with systemic glucocorticoids and levofloxacin. Three days ago, she developed profuse, watery diarrhea. This morning, her diarrhea abruptly ceased, but she became increasingly lethargic and developed severe abdominal pain. Her temperature is (), pulse is , blood pressure is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals a lethargic patient. The abdomen is markedly distended and tympanic with absent bowel sounds. Diffuse rigidity, guarding, and rebound tenderness are present.
Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count: ( neutrophils, bands)
Serum lactate:
Arterial blood gas (room air):
pH:
:
:
An upright chest and abdominal radiograph demonstrates a dilation of the transverse colon, loss of colonic haustrations, and a prominent crescent of radiolucency beneath the right hemidiaphragm.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Emergent subtotal colectomy with end ileostomyAnswer
- BEnteric administration of vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole
- CComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- DEndoscopic decompression of the colon
- EIntravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion