A 45-year-old man is hospitalized for the treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia. Eight days ago, he was started on induction therapy with all-trans retinoic acid and arsenic trioxide, along with empiric intravenous cefepime for neutropenic fever. Over the last hours, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Oxygen saturation is on room air. He reports progressive shortness of breath and a nonproductive cough. Physical examination reveals bilateral basilar crackles, bilateral lower extremity edema, and elevated jugular venous pressure. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of (up from on admission). Chest radiography demonstrates bilateral diffuse interstitial opacities and small bilateral pleural effusions. Which of the following is the most specific and critical next step in the management of this patient's acute respiratory decompensation?
- Intravenous dexamethasoneAnswer
- BIntravenous furosemide
- CAddition of intravenous vancomycin
- DDiscontinuation of all-trans retinoic acid and arsenic trioxide
- EImmediate leukapheresis