Following treatment for a newly diagnosed deep venous thrombosis, a -year-old woman develops severe, worsening pain over her abdomen and left thigh. She sought care at an urgent care clinic days prior for left leg swelling and was immediately prescribed oral warfarin monotherapy. Her past medical history is significant for obesity and type diabetes mellitus. Current medications include metformin and warfarin. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination reveals well-demarcated, exquisitely tender, purpuric lesions with central black eschars over her abdomen and thighs. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin:
Platelets:
Leukocytes:
Prothrombin time: (INR: )
Activated partial thromboplastin time:
Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism for this patient's current skin findings?
- AAutoantibody-mediated platelet activation and clearance
- BInhibition of hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes causing spontaneous hemorrhage
- Rapid decline of a vitamin K-dependent endogenous anticoagulantAnswer
- DSynergistic bacterial invasion of the subcutaneous tissue and fascia
- EDelayed type IV cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction to oral medication