A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance due to the sudden onset of severe abdominal and back pain that started one hour ago. He also reports severe lightheadedness and nausea. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and an open appendectomy 30 years ago. His medications include amlodipine, atorvastatin, and a tiotropium inhaler. On arrival, his temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure is 74/42 mm Hg, pulse is 128/min and regular, and respirations are 28/min. Oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Physical examination reveals a diaphoretic and pale patient in acute distress. Cardiopulmonary examination shows tachycardia with no murmurs, and scattered expiratory wheezes bilaterally. The abdomen is distended, diffusely tender to palpation, and a prominent pulsatile mass is appreciated in the epigastrium. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BIntravenous furosemide and continuous positive airway pressure
- Emergent transfer to the operating room for laparotomyAnswer
- DNasogastric tube insertion and conservative observation
- EIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and blood cultures