A physician is asked to evaluate a hospitalized -year-old male on postoperative day following an emergency exploratory laparotomy and small bowel resection for a strangulated hernia. Overnight, he developed an acute fever of () and excruciating pain in his right knee.
The patient has a history of hypertension and chronic kidney disease, with a baseline serum creatinine of . He is currently receiving continuous intravenous fluids and is transitioning to a clear liquid diet.
On physical examination, his vital signs are stable aside from the fever. The right knee is markedly swollen, uniformly erythematous, warm, and exquisitely tender to light palpation. He refuses to range the joint. The surgical incision site is clean, dry, and intact with no surrounding erythema or induration.
Arthrocentesis of the right knee is performed, yielding of cloudy yellow fluid. Synovial fluid analysis reveals:
- Leukocyte count: ( neutrophils)
- Gram stain: No organisms seen
- Crystal analysis: Negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's joint condition?
- Administer an intra-articular injection of triamcinoloneAnswer
- BInitiate empiric intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- CObtain a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- DPrescribe oral indomethacin
- EAdminister intravenous furosemide