A -year-old man with a history of poorly controlled hypertension is brought to the emergency department after suddenly developing a severe occipital headache, intractable vomiting, and an inability to walk. On presentation, his blood pressure is mm Hg, heart rate is /min, and respiratory rate is /min. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is . Neurologic examination shows marked left-sided dysmetria on finger-to-nose testing, horizontal nystagmus, and truncal ataxia. There is no limb weakness. Noncontrast CT of the head reveals a -cm hyperdense acute hemorrhage in the left cerebellar hemisphere with complete effacement of the fourth ventricle. While in the emergency department, his level of consciousness rapidly declines, and his GCS score drops to (E2, V1, M4). The patient is immediately intubated for airway protection. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AImmediate CT angiography of the head and neck
- BContinuous intravenous labetalol infusion
- Emergent suboccipital craniotomyAnswer
- DPlacement of an external ventricular drain
- EHyperventilation to a target PaCO2 of 25 mm Hg